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Which of the following statements regarding factors that affect call option prices is CORRECT?


A) The longer the time until the call option expires the smaller its value and the smaller its premium.
B) An option on an extremely volatile stock is worth less than one on a very stable stock.
C) The price of a call option increases as the risk-free rate increases.
D) Two call options on the same stock will have the same value even if they have different strike prices.
E) If you observe that a put option on a stock increases in value, then a call option on that same stock also increases in value.

F) B) and C)
G) A) and E)

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Which of the following events is likely to decrease the value of call options on the common stock of GCC Company?


A) An increase in GCC's stock price.
B) An increase in the exercise price of the option.
C) An increase in the amount of time until the option expires.
D) An increase in the risk-free rate.
E) GCC's stock price becomes more risky (higher variance) .

F) A) and E)
G) A) and B)

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A 6-month call option on Meyers Inc.'s stock has a strike price of $45 and sells in the market for $8.25. Meyers' current stock price is $48. What is the option premium?


A) $4.25
B) $4.73
C) $5.25
D) $5.78
E) $6.35

F) A) and C)
G) D) and E)

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Suppose a CBOT 10-year U.S. Treasury note futures contract has a quoted price of 103-18. What is the implied annual interest rate inherent in the futures contract?


A) 4.74%
B) 4.99%
C) 5.25%
D) 5.53%
E) 5.81%

F) None of the above
G) C) and D)

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Deeble Construction Co.'s stock is trading at $30 a share. There are also call options on the company's stock, some with an exercise price of $25 and some with an exercise price of $35. All options expire in 3 months. Which of the following best describes the value of these options?


A) If Deeble's stock price rose by $5, the exercise value of the options with the $25 exercise price would also increase by $5.
B) The options with the $25 exercise price will sell for less than the options with the $35 exercise price.
C) The options with the $25 exercise price have an exercise value greater than $5.
D) The options with the $35 exercise price have an exercise value greater than $0.
E) The options with the $25 exercise price will sell for $5.

F) C) and D)
G) All of the above

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A

There are call options on the common stock of XYZ Corporation. Which of the following best describes the factors that affect call option values?


A) The price of call options will rise if XYZ's stock price rises.
B) The higher the strike price, the higher the call option price.
C) Assuming the same strike price, a call option that expires in 1 month will sell for a higher price than one that expires in 3 months.
D) The less volatile a stock's price, the more valuable a call option on the stock is.
E) If the risk-free rate of interest increases, the value of call options will decrease.

F) D) and E)
G) A) and D)

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In theory, reducing the volatility of its cash flows will always increase a company's value.

A) True
B) False

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An option that gives the holder the right to sell a stock at a specified price at some time in the future is called a(n)


A) Call option.
B) Put option.
C) Out-of-the-money option.
D) Naked option.
E) Covered option.

F) C) and D)
G) A) and D)

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Lissa Co.'s stock price is currently $30.25. A 6-month call option on Lissa's stock has a strike price of $25 and has an expected volatility of 40% (i.e., expected standard deviation = 40%) . The risk-free rate is 6%. According to the Black-Scholes option pricing model, what is the value of the option?


A) $5.06
B) $5.62
C) $6.24
D) $6.94
E) $7.63

F) B) and D)
G) A) and D)

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Warnes Motors' stock is trading at $20 a share. Three-month call options with an exercise price of $20 have a price of $1.50. Which of the following will occur if the stock price increases 10% to $22 a share?


A) The price of the call option will increase by $2.
B) The price of the call option will increase by less than $2, but the percentage increase in price will be more than 10%.
C) The price of the call option will increase by less than $2, and the percentage increase in price will be less than 10%.
D) The price of the call option will increase by more than $2.
E) The price of the call option will increase by more than $2, but the percentage increase in price will be less than 10%.

F) A) and C)
G) A) and E)

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Which of the following statements is most CORRECT?


A) One advantage of forward contracts is that they are default free.
B) Futures contracts generally trade on an organized exchange and are marked to market daily.
C) Goods are never delivered under forward contracts, but are almost always delivered under futures contracts.
D) Forward contracts are generally standardized instruments, whereas futures contracts are generally tailor-made for the 2 parties of the contract.
E) Essentially there are no differences between forward and futures contracts, except that forward contracts are used only for financial assets while futures contracts are used only for commodities.

F) A) and D)
G) C) and D)

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Looking at The Wall Street Journal you observe that the settlement price on a hypothetical 10-year, semiannual payment, 6% coupon Treasury note is 105-21. If the note has a $1,000 par value, what is the implied Treasury note rate?


A) 5.27%
B) 5.53%
C) 5.80%
D) 6.10%
E) 6.40%

F) A) and B)
G) A) and C)

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A

A commercial bank recognizes that its net income suffers whenever interest rates increase. Which of the following strategies would protect the bank against rising interest rates?


A) Buying inverse floaters.
B) Entering into an interest rate swap where the bank receives a fixed payment stream, and in return agrees to make payments that float with market interest rates.
C) Purchase principal only (PO) strips that decline in value whenever interest rates rise.
D) Enter into a short hedge where the bank agrees to sell interest rate futures.
E) Sell some of the bank's floating-rate loans and use the proceeds to make fixed-rate loans.

F) C) and E)
G) C) and D)

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An option that gives the holder the right to buy a stock at a specified price at some time in the future is called a(n)


A) Call option.
B) Put option.
C) Out-of-the-money option.
D) Naked option.
E) Covered option.

F) A) and C)
G) A) and E)

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A 6-month put option on Makler Corp.'s stock has a strike price of $45 and sells in the market for $8.90. Makler's current stock price is $41. What is the exercise value of the option?


A) $2.62
B) $2.92
C) $3.24
D) $3.60
E) $4.00

F) A) and D)
G) A) and C)

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E

Which of the following is NOT an example of a derivative security?


A) Futures.
B) Options.
C) Swaps.
D) Forward contracts.
E) Preferred stock.

F) B) and E)
G) A) and E)

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One objective of risk management can be to reduce the volatility of a firm's cash flows.

A) True
B) False

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Interest rate swaps allow a firm to exchange fixed for floating-rate payments, but a swap cannot reduce actual net interest expenses.

A) True
B) False

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Suppose a CBOT 10-year U.S. Treasury note futures contract has a quoted price of 88-30. If annual interest rates go down by 1.00 percentage point, what is the gain or loss on the futures contract? (Assume a $1,000 par value, round the new interest rate to 4 decimal places when written as a decimal, and round the change in price up to the nearest whole dollar.)


A) $63.00
B) $65.00
C) $67.00
D) $69.00
E) $71.00

F) B) and D)
G) A) and E)

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Which of the following statements concerning risk management is NOT CORRECT?


A) Risk management can reduce the volatility of cash flows, and this decreases the probability of bankruptcy.
B) Risk management makes sense for firms directly engaged in activities that involve commodities whose values can be hedged, but it doesn't make much sense for most other firms.
C) Companies with volatile earnings pay more taxes than companies with more stable earnings due to the treatment of tax credits and the rules governing corporate loss carry-forwards and carry-backs. Therefore, our tax system encourages risk management to stabilize earnings.
D) Risk management can reduce the likelihood of low cash flows, and therefore reduce the probability of financial distress.
E) Risk management involves identifying events that could have adverse financial consequences and then taking actions to prevent and/or to minimize the damage caused by these events.

F) A) and B)
G) A) and C)

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